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Soviet surrender - 4/29/2019 10:20:14 PM   
DoXiTXxX

 

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Is there any specific reason that when the Soviet Union surrenders and the Axis decide to split the territory between them that the German part becomes part of the German home country, eliminating the need for the Germans to have any occupation forces, since there are no Soviet partisans? When Germany conquers the Soviet Union alone this does not happen.

< Message edited by DoXiTXxX -- 4/29/2019 10:22:07 PM >
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RE: Soviet surrender - 4/30/2019 3:46:38 PM   
BillRunacre

 

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DE 616 allows the Axis to divide the USSR between Germany and Japan. What this does is it transfer the actual hexes making up the USSR to new owners, which doesn't allow for partisan activity.

If we can work out a way to avoid this, we will.

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(in reply to DoXiTXxX)
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RE: Soviet surrender - 4/30/2019 6:14:10 PM   
LochLomond

 

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I think this decission should only occur if Japan is in war with USSR. Why should Germany take Sibiria as a gift to Japan while doing the complete fight alone?

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RE: Soviet surrender - 4/30/2019 11:04:48 PM   
DoXiTXxX

 

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Thanks for the info, I think it would be important to make the Axis keep a moderate amount of forces in the occupied territories in addition to limited supply levles, to give the remaining Allies a minimal fighting chance. As it is now, one or two turns after the Soviet surrender nearly all of the Germans are in France ready to cross the channel.

(in reply to LochLomond)
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